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20 years 11 months ago #6772 by Jim
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C^2 is not a rate of change in velocity. C^2 is velocity times velocity-whatever that is. Anyway, the process of transforming mass to energy and energy to mass could result from acceleration-right? Is that worth consideration?

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20 years 11 months ago #6654 by GD
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E=mc^2 as presented in Einstein's equation shows us the first picture frame of the movie reel set in motion 13 or so billion years ago: the moment of creation.
It is also present in our atmosphere when "over-reving" gas molecules excited by great potential difference create lightning.

E=mc is present in our bodies as the electrons spin at a seemingly steady pace. But overheating produces a heat stroke when E=m is attained.

E=m is present in the center of the Earth as magma, a depleted form of matter. As it spews out a volcano, it quickly turns to E=mc and solidifies.

As you see, Einstein's equation is an ever changing one as matter's energy state dictates its acceleration.

E=ma<b></b>

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20 years 11 months ago #6544 by Jim
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I agree that E=mc2 & F=ma are the same or very nearly the same. What is the relationship of energy and mass? If you alter the constant(C2) a bit the need for a lot stuff in physics such as neutrinos and other such patches are not needed and a clearer work area can be maintained.

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20 years 11 months ago #6548 by GD
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I suspect that the "missing" energy in beta decay is in the form of heat, a depleted form of energy. Therefore energy is conserved !

According to me, neutrinos, dark energy, and dark matter do not exist, or at least not in the quantities mentioned.

I believe the atom's rate of decay varies with: acceleration, and/or position, and/or time.

These views are based on observations and logic. They do not necessarily represent reality. I think we have to explore all possibilities in the quest to better understand our world.

Whatever conclusions are made, we have billions of years ahead of us.
Our human ancestors have been walking this Earth for only a few million years!

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20 years 11 months ago #6592 by GD
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If we follow the same line of thinking as the previous messages, can we define the center of inertia of a body as the area where there is the least motion if this body is made to rotate about any axis ?

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20 years 11 months ago #6552 by Jan
Replied by Jan on topic Reply from Jan Vink
<blockquote id="quote"><font size="2" face="Verdana, Arial, Helvetica" id="quote">quote:<hr height="1" noshade id="quote"> [Jim:] I agree that E=mc2 & F=ma are the same or very nearly the same.<hr height="1" noshade id="quote"></blockquote id="quote"></font id="quote"> I'd rather say that E=(1/2)*m*v^2 and E=m*c^2 are very nearly the same. What is it you mean? Using Lagrange we do obtain the force relation F=d/dt(d/dv(E))=m*d/dt(v) = m*a. Agreed?

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