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- 1234567890
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21 years 9 months ago #4801
by 1234567890
Replied by 1234567890 on topic Reply from
Dr. Flandern,
when you argue that - since things can't pass out of existence, they
can't come into existence- that seems to contradict experience: The empirical fact is that things ARE in existence- thus proving things CAN come into existence. Whether existence is a reversible process
is debatable (although empirical evidence suggests not), but I think it is irrefutable that something can come from nothing. Existence proves this process. A limited analogy would be to think of the transition between anarchic and a lawful society. Before there was law, anything goes. One of the laws our universe in its creation adopted could have been the conservation principles, making it an irreversible process. Or maybe there is no conservation- we just haven't figured out how to violate it.
when you argue that - since things can't pass out of existence, they
can't come into existence- that seems to contradict experience: The empirical fact is that things ARE in existence- thus proving things CAN come into existence. Whether existence is a reversible process
is debatable (although empirical evidence suggests not), but I think it is irrefutable that something can come from nothing. Existence proves this process. A limited analogy would be to think of the transition between anarchic and a lawful society. Before there was law, anything goes. One of the laws our universe in its creation adopted could have been the conservation principles, making it an irreversible process. Or maybe there is no conservation- we just haven't figured out how to violate it.
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21 years 9 months ago #4802
by Enrico
Replied by Enrico on topic Reply from
...So we could talk on your phylosophical issues, but not before we agree on premises.
Thus far, I find that you gravely misuse the terminology, and it's not about your English...
I believe it was not my philosophical issues but issues I found already discussed here and misused to a great extent. I just tried to help. What I say is not my stupid opinion but of many great and known Philosophers apparently you are not aware of. I do not like your attitude. If you must question what is "1" and 1+1+1... I suggest you first look your face on the mirror and wonder if you exist at all. Possibly you have existential problems. No person questioning basic things like "1" and 1+1+1+... ever got any place. If you keep question things like that you have long way to go before you can discuss serious philosophical issues. Very long.
Thus far, I find that you gravely misuse the terminology, and it's not about your English...
I believe it was not my philosophical issues but issues I found already discussed here and misused to a great extent. I just tried to help. What I say is not my stupid opinion but of many great and known Philosophers apparently you are not aware of. I do not like your attitude. If you must question what is "1" and 1+1+1... I suggest you first look your face on the mirror and wonder if you exist at all. Possibly you have existential problems. No person questioning basic things like "1" and 1+1+1+... ever got any place. If you keep question things like that you have long way to go before you can discuss serious philosophical issues. Very long.
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- 1234567890
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21 years 9 months ago #5094
by 1234567890
Replied by 1234567890 on topic Reply from
<BLOCKQUOTE id=quote><font size=2 face="Verdana, Arial, Helvetica" id=quote>quote:<hr height=1 noshade id=quote>
[Enrico]The problem is that if distance is infinite divisible there are infinite "check points" to pass and the real series is not Gamow's but 1+1+1+...+1+... and this is infinite sum then motion is impossible in first place.
<hr height=1 noshade id=quote></BLOCKQUOTE id=quote></font id=quote><font face="Verdana, Arial, Helvetica" size=2 id=quote>
A distance can be infinitely divisible and yet is finite in length. When we speak of moving through a distance, we are speaking of moving through a definite and finite length (that may possibly be divided into infinite parts) and not of moving through an infinite length. Sure, 1 meter can be imagined to be divided into infinitely smaller parts but the actual length is still 1 meter, by definition.
Surely a finite distance being divided into infinite parts is no barrier for motion- unless you were an infinitely small object. It is a clever trick of language but Zeno's paradox of motion is no paradox at all.
[Enrico]The problem is that if distance is infinite divisible there are infinite "check points" to pass and the real series is not Gamow's but 1+1+1+...+1+... and this is infinite sum then motion is impossible in first place.
<hr height=1 noshade id=quote></BLOCKQUOTE id=quote></font id=quote><font face="Verdana, Arial, Helvetica" size=2 id=quote>
A distance can be infinitely divisible and yet is finite in length. When we speak of moving through a distance, we are speaking of moving through a definite and finite length (that may possibly be divided into infinite parts) and not of moving through an infinite length. Sure, 1 meter can be imagined to be divided into infinitely smaller parts but the actual length is still 1 meter, by definition.
Surely a finite distance being divided into infinite parts is no barrier for motion- unless you were an infinitely small object. It is a clever trick of language but Zeno's paradox of motion is no paradox at all.
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21 years 9 months ago #5096
by AgoraBasta
Replied by AgoraBasta on topic Reply from
<BLOCKQUOTE id=quote><font size=2 face="Verdana, Arial, Helvetica" id=quote>quote:<hr height=1 noshade id=quote>[Enrico]No person questioning basic things like "1" and 1+1+1+... ever got any place. If you keep question things like that you have long way to go before you can discuss serious philosophical issues. Very long.<hr height=1 noshade id=quote></BLOCKQUOTE id=quote></font id=quote><font face="Verdana, Arial, Helvetica" size=2 id=quote>That must've been the "long way" you skipped altogether in your educational process... Otherwise you'd come up with clear definitions of your particular use of math notation here and of how exactly is it related to your "phylosophical" exercises, rather than resorting to personal attacks and accusations of ignorance.
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- tvanflandern
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21 years 9 months ago #4810
by tvanflandern
Replied by tvanflandern on topic Reply from Tom Van Flandern
<BLOCKQUOTE id=quote><font size=2 face="Verdana, Arial, Helvetica" id=quote>quote:<hr height=1 noshade id=quote>[123...]: when you argue that - since things can't pass out of existence, they can't come into existence- that seems to contradict experience: The empirical fact is that things ARE in existence- thus proving things CAN come into existence.<hr height=1 noshade id=quote></BLOCKQUOTE id=quote></font id=quote><font face="Verdana, Arial, Helvetica" size=2 id=quote>
That is faulty logical. It only proves that either things can come into existence, <i>or</i> that they have always existed. Right?
<BLOCKQUOTE id=quote><font size=2 face="Verdana, Arial, Helvetica" id=quote>quote:<hr height=1 noshade id=quote>Whether existence is a reversible process is debatable (although empirical evidence suggests not), but I think it is irrefutable that something can come from nothing. Existence proves this process.<hr height=1 noshade id=quote></BLOCKQUOTE id=quote></font id=quote><font face="Verdana, Arial, Helvetica" size=2 id=quote>
As I just mentioned, existence does not prove any such thing. And it would take a miracle for something to come into existence from nothing. Magic, miracles and the supernatural are explicitely forbidden in physics because they explain nothing and are untestable. If we allowed them as explanations, there would be no point into inquiring how anything works beyond "God made it that way!" Physics would be pointless.
<BLOCKQUOTE id=quote><font size=2 face="Verdana, Arial, Helvetica" id=quote>quote:<hr height=1 noshade id=quote>A limited analogy would be to think of the transition between anarchic and a lawful society. Before there was law, anything goes. One of the laws our universe in its creation adopted could have been the conservation principles, making it an irreversible process. Or maybe there is no conservation- we just haven't figured out how to violate it.<hr height=1 noshade id=quote></BLOCKQUOTE id=quote></font id=quote><font face="Verdana, Arial, Helvetica" size=2 id=quote>
That whole line of reasoning presumes the universe had a beginning, so that it can evolve over time. But having a beginning itself violates the "something from nothing" principle. Reason allows no option but that the universe has always existed and always will exist. We can at most change a few details while we are here -- choosing to increase the order or the disorder in the local neighborhood.
Seekers of nature's secrets must ask questions of nature, not give orders about how she must work. You may have some religious reason for believing that things can be created from nothing, but my reasoning about physical principles tells me otherwise. -|Tom|-
That is faulty logical. It only proves that either things can come into existence, <i>or</i> that they have always existed. Right?
<BLOCKQUOTE id=quote><font size=2 face="Verdana, Arial, Helvetica" id=quote>quote:<hr height=1 noshade id=quote>Whether existence is a reversible process is debatable (although empirical evidence suggests not), but I think it is irrefutable that something can come from nothing. Existence proves this process.<hr height=1 noshade id=quote></BLOCKQUOTE id=quote></font id=quote><font face="Verdana, Arial, Helvetica" size=2 id=quote>
As I just mentioned, existence does not prove any such thing. And it would take a miracle for something to come into existence from nothing. Magic, miracles and the supernatural are explicitely forbidden in physics because they explain nothing and are untestable. If we allowed them as explanations, there would be no point into inquiring how anything works beyond "God made it that way!" Physics would be pointless.
<BLOCKQUOTE id=quote><font size=2 face="Verdana, Arial, Helvetica" id=quote>quote:<hr height=1 noshade id=quote>A limited analogy would be to think of the transition between anarchic and a lawful society. Before there was law, anything goes. One of the laws our universe in its creation adopted could have been the conservation principles, making it an irreversible process. Or maybe there is no conservation- we just haven't figured out how to violate it.<hr height=1 noshade id=quote></BLOCKQUOTE id=quote></font id=quote><font face="Verdana, Arial, Helvetica" size=2 id=quote>
That whole line of reasoning presumes the universe had a beginning, so that it can evolve over time. But having a beginning itself violates the "something from nothing" principle. Reason allows no option but that the universe has always existed and always will exist. We can at most change a few details while we are here -- choosing to increase the order or the disorder in the local neighborhood.
Seekers of nature's secrets must ask questions of nature, not give orders about how she must work. You may have some religious reason for believing that things can be created from nothing, but my reasoning about physical principles tells me otherwise. -|Tom|-
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- 1234567890
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21 years 9 months ago #4813
by 1234567890
Replied by 1234567890 on topic Reply from
<BLOCKQUOTE id=quote><font size=2 face="Verdana, Arial, Helvetica" id=quote>quote:<hr height=1 noshade id=quote>
<BLOCKQUOTE id=quote><font size=2 face="Verdana, Arial, Helvetica" id=quote>quote:<hr height=1 noshade id=quote>[123...]: when you argue that - since things can't pass out of existence, they can't come into existence- that seems to contradict experience: The empirical fact is that things ARE in existence- thus proving things CAN come into existence.<hr height=1 noshade id=quote></BLOCKQUOTE id=quote></font id=quote><font face="Verdana, Arial, Helvetica" size=2 id=quote>
That is faulty logical. It only proves that either things can come into existence, <i>or</i> that they have always existed. Right?
<hr height=1 noshade id=quote></BLOCKQUOTE id=quote></font id=quote><font face="Verdana, Arial, Helvetica" size=2 id=quote>
Thx for the reply Dr. Flandern. If I may, let's review this critical point:
Things are in existence, that is a fact, I hope we can agree on that. Since things are in existence, it must imply that coming into existence was a possibility because... it happened! I say WAS because the laws of nature must have been different prior to our present existence, making creation possibly irreversible. It is not a logical fallacy to assume things can come into existence but not out of existence since existence has a different set of rules than non-existence. Going back to the government analogy, it would be like saying that an anarchy can not produce a democracy. And along the same lines, the set of rules are much different for a democratic state than an anarchic state. In fact, an anarchic state can encompass all sets of rules.
In contrast, if we were to argue that existence actually proves something can't come from nothing, it leads to circular reasoning.
Since we exist, something must have come from nothing- empirical fact directly contradicts our premise. Taking the position instead that the universe has always existed doesn't help much. All the conservation principles would contradict itself. Let's take a bowling ball moving in space for example. Conservation tells us that something must have transferred energy to the ball for it to be moving- the motion must have a cause (or beginning). If we declare in this example that the energy was always there, then this is already an example that an effect has no cause. Thus, there is no conservation. But there is. But there isn't. But there is. Ad infinitium.
Imagine Adam and Eve borning a child named Ernie, then died. The child is the only human left on Earth. Having no memories of birth nor knowledge of his parents, Ernie ends up believing she has always existed and had no cause. Is she correct in doing so? If her parents bodies are never found, no one can prove her wrong. But if she became attentive to other life forms around her and observed the evidence of cause and effect, would she still be justified in her original position?
<BLOCKQUOTE id=quote><font size=2 face="Verdana, Arial, Helvetica" id=quote>quote:<hr height=1 noshade id=quote>[123...]: when you argue that - since things can't pass out of existence, they can't come into existence- that seems to contradict experience: The empirical fact is that things ARE in existence- thus proving things CAN come into existence.<hr height=1 noshade id=quote></BLOCKQUOTE id=quote></font id=quote><font face="Verdana, Arial, Helvetica" size=2 id=quote>
That is faulty logical. It only proves that either things can come into existence, <i>or</i> that they have always existed. Right?
<hr height=1 noshade id=quote></BLOCKQUOTE id=quote></font id=quote><font face="Verdana, Arial, Helvetica" size=2 id=quote>
Thx for the reply Dr. Flandern. If I may, let's review this critical point:
Things are in existence, that is a fact, I hope we can agree on that. Since things are in existence, it must imply that coming into existence was a possibility because... it happened! I say WAS because the laws of nature must have been different prior to our present existence, making creation possibly irreversible. It is not a logical fallacy to assume things can come into existence but not out of existence since existence has a different set of rules than non-existence. Going back to the government analogy, it would be like saying that an anarchy can not produce a democracy. And along the same lines, the set of rules are much different for a democratic state than an anarchic state. In fact, an anarchic state can encompass all sets of rules.
In contrast, if we were to argue that existence actually proves something can't come from nothing, it leads to circular reasoning.
Since we exist, something must have come from nothing- empirical fact directly contradicts our premise. Taking the position instead that the universe has always existed doesn't help much. All the conservation principles would contradict itself. Let's take a bowling ball moving in space for example. Conservation tells us that something must have transferred energy to the ball for it to be moving- the motion must have a cause (or beginning). If we declare in this example that the energy was always there, then this is already an example that an effect has no cause. Thus, there is no conservation. But there is. But there isn't. But there is. Ad infinitium.
Imagine Adam and Eve borning a child named Ernie, then died. The child is the only human left on Earth. Having no memories of birth nor knowledge of his parents, Ernie ends up believing she has always existed and had no cause. Is she correct in doing so? If her parents bodies are never found, no one can prove her wrong. But if she became attentive to other life forms around her and observed the evidence of cause and effect, would she still be justified in her original position?
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